A lot of helpful things here. However, when it comes to the New Covenant, I still think Robert Rayburn's interpretation is better. It's the only one I've seen that does justice to Jeremiah's original prophecy and interprets it in a way that is compatible with the parallel passages in Deuteronomy 30 and Ezekiel 36.
Jeremiah is not speaking of a covenant that will be made only with the elect. He is speaking of a day when all of God's people will believe and embrace the covenant from the heart. Instead of only a remnant, a day will come when all the people will know the Lord, have his law/Spirit within them, and enjoy the forgiveness of their sin.
While Christ secured these NC benefits for the elect of all ages. The actual prophecy of Jeremiah hasn't been fulfilled yet. Like Ezkekiel 36 and other restoration passages, it awaits fulfillment at the consummation.
Thank you. Is Rayburns position similar to the idea I heard from Reformed Forum that Jeremiah is utilizing ordo verbiage to explain historia realities?
A lot of helpful things here. However, when it comes to the New Covenant, I still think Robert Rayburn's interpretation is better. It's the only one I've seen that does justice to Jeremiah's original prophecy and interprets it in a way that is compatible with the parallel passages in Deuteronomy 30 and Ezekiel 36.
Jeremiah is not speaking of a covenant that will be made only with the elect. He is speaking of a day when all of God's people will believe and embrace the covenant from the heart. Instead of only a remnant, a day will come when all the people will know the Lord, have his law/Spirit within them, and enjoy the forgiveness of their sin.
While Christ secured these NC benefits for the elect of all ages. The actual prophecy of Jeremiah hasn't been fulfilled yet. Like Ezkekiel 36 and other restoration passages, it awaits fulfillment at the consummation.
Appreciate it. I’ll definitely give it a read.
Thank you. Is Rayburns position similar to the idea I heard from Reformed Forum that Jeremiah is utilizing ordo verbiage to explain historia realities?
I'm thinking it's not quite the same.
Andrew Sandlin summarizes Rayburn's position here: https://chalcedon.edu/resources/articles/the-unity-of-gods-covenantal-plan-a-dissertation-review